Deciding on a change (from baseline)
Another problem in meta-analysis of continuous data is change-from-baseline outcomes. As an example, consider the following results from the Hypertension Optimal Treatment (HOT) trial. This trial was published in The Lancet in 1998. Two of the treatment groups presented were attempts to reduce diastolic blood pressure in hypertensive participants to targets of less than 90 mmHg and less than 85 mmHg respectively.
| |
Baseline diastolic BP |
Final diastolic BP |
| Mean |
(SD) |
Mean |
(SD) |
| <90 mmHg (n=6264) |
105.4 |
(3.4) |
85.2 |
(5.1) |
| <85 mmHg (n=6264) |
105.4 |
(3.4) |
83.2 |
(4.8) |
Should the analysis focus on the final BP or the change-from-baseline? Does it matter?
We can work out that the average (mean) change-from-baseline is 85.2 - 105.4 = -20.2 for the first group and 83.2 - 105.4 = -22.2 for the second group. The difference between these is the same as the difference between the final means, that is 2.0. As a general rule, the two estimates of treatment effect (i.e. differences between the two groups) should not be too different in properly conducted randomized trials where the two groups are similar at baseline. Indeed in this example they are identical because the trial is so large that the average baseline BPs were identical in the two groups. In most randomized trials, this won't quite be the case. In some trials, especially small or poorly conducted trials, the difference can appear quite profound. The choice of whether to use final value or change score in your meta-analysis is a difficult one. There are two issues to consider.
First, there is a statistical argument to prefer change-from-baseline outcomes. This is closely related to the arguments in favour of crossover trials. Repeated measurements made on the same participants (at baseline and after treatment) tend to be correlated. This leads to smaller standard errors, and hence smaller confidence intervals, for the estimate of treatment effect when using change-from-baseline.
Second, there is a very real practical problem that can make the use of change-from-baseline very difficult. In order to use change-from-baseline outcomes in a meta-analysis we need their standard deviations. Notice in the table above that we have given standard deviations for the baseline measures and the final measures, but not the changes. What are the standard deviations for these changes? The answer is that we can't possibly know from the information in the table. It could be that every participant in the <90 mmHg group reduced their BP by exactly 20.2 and every participant in the <85 mmHg group reduced theirs by exactly 22.2. In this case the standard deviations of the changes will both be 0. That would be very strong evidence of a difference between the groups. Or it could be that BP reductions in the two groups were highly variable (some increase, some decrease), with a large standard deviation, and the difference in means of 2.0 would then look quite unimportant.
So how do we find out the standard deviations of the changes? If you are lucky you will find them explicitly presented in the trial report. In fact, the report of the HOT trial does give them. The BP reductions are, 20.3 (SD 5.6) in the <90 mmHg group and 22.3 (SD 5.4) in the <85 mmHg group. Note that in this case the standard deviations of change are actually larger than the standard deviations of final values - so there is no benefit in this study in terms of power in using change scores.
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